Instrument Airplane Oral Exam

To act as PIC for a flight:

• Under IFR
• Weather that does not meet VFR minimums
• Anytime in Class A airspace
• Special VFR at night
• Carrying passengers for hire at night or on a flight more than 50 NM

Any airplane for which you are rated and otherwise qualified to act as PIC.

• 50 hr of cross-country PIC time, including 10 hr in airplanes
• 40 hr of actual or simulated instrument time, including 15 hr with a CFII
  • Up to 30 hr of the required instrument time may be completed in a full flight simulator or flight training device if completed under Part 142; otherwise, the maximum is 20 hr.
• 3 hr of instrument training in an airplane within 2 calendar months before the practical test
• 250 NM cross-country flight with a CFII under an IFR flight plan along airways or an ATC-directed route, with 3 different types of approaches

• Pilot certificate
• A current FAA medical certificate of the class your flight requires
• Government-issued photo ID

All three must be in your physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

Showing them on request. You must present your pilot and medical certificates, or your BasicMed documents, together with your photo ID, when any of these asks to inspect them, § 61.3(l):

• The FAA
• An authorized NTSB representative
• Any federal, state or local law enforcement officer
• An authorized TSA representative

Your logbook falls under a separate rule, § 61.51(i): present it on reasonable request by the FAA, the NTSB, or law enforcement. The TSA is not on that list.

Under BasicMed there is no medical certificate to carry. You hold a U.S. driver's license, and the completed examination checklist and course completion certificate must be available in your logbook, § 61.113(i)(3).

Exercising commercial privileges in an aircraft other than a balloon or glider takes at least a second class medical, § 61.23(a)(2)(ii). BasicMed covers only student, recreational and private pilot privileges, and a flight instructor acting as PIC, § 61.23(c).

Yes, currency applies to the category, not the class, of aircraft.

• Within the preceding 6 calendar months: 6 IAPs, holding procedures/tasks, and intercepting/tracking courses
• Current flight review
• Current FAA medical
• Landing currency if carrying passengers

Complete one holding procedure/task, either in an approved simulator or in an airplane with a safety pilot, CFI, or DPE.

Perform an IPC with a CFII or DPE.

• No. To log an IAP for currency, you must be in IMC until the final approach segment.
• When using a view-limiting device, you must descend to the DA/MDA to count the IAP toward currency.

• The pilot flying under the hood may log PIC as sole manipulator if rated for the airplane.
• The safety pilot may log PIC only if acting as PIC by agreement; otherwise, they may log SIC while serving as a required crewmember. Include the safety pilot's full name in the remarks.

They must be rated in the category and class of aircraft being used and have a current FAA medical because they are a required crewmember.

No

No, unless they are acting as PIC.

If prior to the flight it is agreed that the safety pilot will be acting as PIC, then yes, they need the endorsement. If they are not acting as PIC, though, they do not, and can log SIC time because they are a required crewmember.

Instrument Airplane ACS

• Ceiling and visibility requirements should reflect your recent instrument experience.
• Avoid flying to published minimums unless very current and experienced in actual IMC.

Day VFR:

• Airspeed indicator
• Tachometer (for each engine)
• Oil pressure gauge (for each engine)
• Manifold pressure gauge (for each altitude engine)
• Altimeter
• Temperature gauge (for each liquid-cooled engine)
• Oil temperature gauge (for each air-cooled engine)
• Fuel gauge
• Landing gear position indicator (if applicable)
• Anticollision lights (beacon or strobes, for aircraft certificated after March 11, 1996)
• Magnetic direction indicator (either magnetic compass or magnetometer)
• Emergency location transmitter
• Seat belts

Night VFR (in addition to day VFR equipment)

• Fuses or circuit breakers (if fuses, one spare set or three of each kind)
• Landing light (if for hire)
• Anticollision lights (beacon or strobes)
• Position lights (nav lights)
• Source of power (e.g., alternator or generator)

IFR (in addition to VFR equipment):

• Generator or alternator (source of electricity)
• Radio (two-way communication and navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown)
• Altimeter (pressure-sensitive and adjustable)
• Ball (inclinometer)
• Clock (with hours, minutes, and seconds)
• Attitude indicator
• Rate of turn indicator
• Directional gyro (or HSI)

If no portion of your route requires VORs for navigation or GPS can be substituted for VORs, then yes.

Since it is not required per 14 CFR § 91.205, as long as it's not required on your aircraft's equipment list - yes. However, it may be unsafe if flying in visible moisture and freezing temperatures. Per 14 CFR § 91.213, you must placard the pitot heat switch and deactivate it (eg pulling a circuit breaker and zip tying it to prevent reactivation prior to service).

• VOR - Every 30 days
• Altimeter - Every 24 calendar months
• Transponder - Every 24 calendar months

Ground:

• VOR Test Facility (VOT): +/- 4°
  • Set the course to 360°, and it should be centered with a FROM indication.
  • Set the course to 180°, and it should be centered with a TO indication.
• Certified ground checkpoint: +/- 4°
  • Found in Chart Supplement
  • Follow instructions on local signage.

Air:

• Airborne checkpoint: +/- 6°
  • Select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of a VOR airway.
  • Select a prominent ground point roughly 20 NM from the VOR that is along that radial.
  • Note the indicated VOR bearing as compared to the charted course.
• Dual check: +/- 4°
  • Tune both nav radios to same station and center both.

Date, error, location of check, and signature

Yes. VOR checks are only required for VORs, not GPS or ILS.

Your Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) and avionics supplements will list approved equipment and navigation capabilities.

• The Avidyne IFD440 explicitly forbids this.
• For other GPS units, you might be able to use GPS en route if you can verify the data is accurate (e.g., with current charts). You cannot fly a GPS IAP with an expired database.

Fewer mechanical parts that can break, and less prone to gyro tumbling.

No, you must rely on standby instruments.

No, you must use VLOC.

Press the "Continue Hold" button before crossing the holding fix inbound.

Start big-picture, then work toward route and terminal details:

• Synopsis (surface analysis, prog charts, cloud charts)
• Adverse conditions (AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and Convective SIGMETs)
• Route and terminal forecasts (METARs and TAFs)
• Winds and Temperatures Aloft (winds, freezing level)
• PIREPs and radar
• NOTAMs

• Cloud tops and bottoms
• Freezing level
• Nearest VMC in the case of electrical failure
• Potential for embedded thunderstorms

• Standard - The full picture, for when you haven't looked at anything yet. It covers adverse conditions, VFR flight not recommended when applicable, the synopsis, current conditions, enroute and destination forecasts, winds aloft, NOTAMs, and ATC delays.
• Abbreviated - An update to a briefing or data you already have. Tell the briefer what you've already seen and when you saw it.
• Outlook - For a departure 6 or more hours away. Forecast information only.

All three are also available in flight via Flight Service. You can also get a compliant briefing by self-briefing with qualified sources (e.g., ForeFlight) because § 91.103 is about having the information, not about how you got it.

IFR conditions are those less than VFR, specifically ceilings less than 1,000 ft and/or visibility less than 3 SM. LIFR, or low instrument flight rules, conditions are technically still IFR, but tell you that ceilings and/or visibility are especially low, specifically ceilings less than 500 ft and/or visibility less than 1 SM. Only highly and recently experienced instrument rated pilots should attempt flying in these conditions.

Marginal VFR. It's weather that's approaching IFR, but is still legally VFR - 1,000-3,000 ft ceilings and/or 3-5 SM visibility. If you are instrument rated, it's a good idea to file IFR in these conditions.

A concise statement of the expected conditions significant to aviation, for a specified period, within 5 SM of the center of the airport's runway complex. It is a terminal forecast, not an area forecast.

• Issued four times a day, every 6 hr, at 0000, 0600, 1200 and 1800Z, and amended as needed. Some locations routinely issue an amendment 3 hr after the initial.
• Most run 24 hr; some major airports run 30 hr.
• It uses the same weather codes as a METAR, so if you can read one you can read the other.
• Temperature is not in the NWS TAF. If you need a forecast temperature, that comes from the LAMP/MOS product.

• TAF issued for KBWI airport on the 14th at 1735Z, valid from the 14th at 1800Z to the 15th at 2400Z, winds 210 at 9 gusting 17 knots, visibility greater than 6 SM, scattered clouds at 5,000 and broken at 25,000
• From the 14th at 2100Z winds 210 at 13 knots gusting 23 knots, visibility greater than 6 SM, light rain showers, scattered clouds at 5,000 and broken at 8,000
• 30% probability between the 14th at 2200Z and the 15th at 0200Z variable winds at 15 knots, gusting 35 knots, visibility 4 SM, thunderstorms and rain, overcast cumulonimbus clouds at 4,000
• From the 15th at 0400Z winds 240 at 6 knots, visibility 6 SM, light rain showers, broken clouds at 4,500

Advisories for en route weather that may be hazardous, especially to light aircraft. Three categories, and the letters are what you will be asked for:

Timing comes in two forms. Over the CONUS they are displayed graphically, sometimes called G-AIRMETs, valid at discrete times no more than 3 hr apart out to 12 hr. The text bulletin behind them is issued every 6 hr (0245, 0845, 1445 and 2045Z) and is valid 6 hr. Unscheduled AIRMETs are issued when conditions occur that were not forecast.

The difference from a SIGMET is severity and audience: moderate conditions hazardous to light aircraft, against severe conditions hazardous to all aircraft.

Advisories for non-convective en route weather hazardous to all aircraft, not just light ones. Unscheduled: issued any time the criteria are occurring or expected within a 4 hr period.

Inside the CONUS, the criteria are:

• Severe or greater turbulence
• Severe icing
• Widespread dust storm
• Widespread sandstorm
• Volcanic ash

A CONUS SIGMET is valid up to 4 hr, and is reissued at least every 4 hr while the condition continues.

Outside the CONUS the list also includes thunderstorms (obscured, embedded, widespread, squall line, isolated severe) and tropical cyclones, and volcanic ash and tropical cyclone SIGMETs can be valid up to 6 hr.

Convective weather inside the CONUS gets its own product, the Convective SIGMET.

The thunderstorm advisory, issued for the CONUS instead of a SIGMET. Issued every hour at 55 minutes past the hour, valid 2 hr.

What triggers one:

• Tornadoes
• Severe hail
• Severe surface winds
• Squall lines
• Widespread thunderstorm activity
• Embedded or severe thunderstorms

Any Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low-level wind shear, so those are never listed separately.

The polygon is a snapshot at the issuance time. During the valid period the area moves along the vector given in the text, so a fast-moving line will not be where the graphic drew it.

Every 3 hr, but it takes around 90 minutes to create them, meaning they're always a little out of date.

• A high-pressure system, with air generally sinking, moving outward, and rotating clockwise
• It results in stable conditions such as smooth air and few clouds.

• A low-pressure system, with air generally rising, moving inward, and rotating counterclockwise
• It results in unstable conditions such as rain, wind, icing, and even thunderstorms.

• A warm front, where a warm air mass advances over a cooler air mass.
• Weather changes are slow, and may include light rain, drizzle, and a temperature rise.

• A cold front, where a cold air mass advances under and lifts a warmer air mass.
• Weather changes are abrupt and typically more severe, including thunderstorms, heavy rainfall, and a temperature drop.

• A stationary front, where two air masses meet but neither advances significantly.
• Weather tends to persist and can produce low IFR conditions, including rain.

A dry line is moving through, which can trigger intense, fast-developing supercell thunderstorms, hail, and tornadoes due to the sudden uplifting of the nearby moist air.

• Isobars, which indicate lines of equal pressure.
• The numbers are the pressure (in millibars).

Strong winds

• Above the friction layer the wind blows parallel to the isobars. The pressure gradient force and the Coriolis force are in balance, which is the geostrophic wind.
• Friction near the surface breaks that balance. It slows the air, and slower air feels less Coriolis force, while the pressure gradient force is unaffected.
• The now-stronger pressure gradient force turns the surface wind at an angle across the isobars toward lower pressure: outward and clockwise around a high, inward and counterclockwise around a low.
• Wind at 2,000 ft AGL runs 20° to 40° to the right of the surface wind and is faster. The shift is greatest over rough terrain and least over open water.
• Spacing shows strength. Closely spaced isobars mean a steep gradient and strong winds; isobars far apart mean light winds.

• A trough, which is an elongated area of relatively low pressure.
• It brings gusty winds, clouds, and precipitation.

• An elongated area of relatively high pressure
• It brings clear skies and light winds.

• Looks similar to a stationary front, but is entirely purple
• It happens when a cold front, which typically moves faster, catches up to a warm front moving in the same direction.
• When the cold front is colder than the air in front of the warm front ("cold front occlusion"), it lifts the warm air up and generates heavy rainfall.
• When the cold front is warmer than the air in front of the warm front ("warm front occlusion"), it slides in between the warm and colder air and generates gradual weather changes, including prolonged periods of rain.

Short-Range Surface Prog Charts are the forecast counterpart to a surface analysis chart: same kind of picture, but of conditions expected rather than observed.

• Produced by the Weather Prediction Center for the CONUS and coastal waters, covering a multiday period.
• They plot surface pressure systems, fronts and precipitation, combining WPC forecasts of fronts, isobars and highs and lows with the National Digital Forecast Database.
• The period is divided into selected valid times, and each chart is a snapshot of what is expected at its own valid time, not a summary of the span.
• Precipitation is shown by type and probability: rain green, snow blue, mixed purple, freezing rain red, each in a light shade for chance (25% to under 55%) and a dark shade for likely (55% or more). Thunderstorms are red diagonal hatching.

A pilot report of actual weather conditions

• UA (routine) and UUA (urgent)
• UA includes routine reports such as cloud tops, bases, and light conditions.
• UUA includes urgent reports such as severe turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear.

Aviation Weather Center and weather briefing products

Routine PIREP over EAU, time 2247Z, flight level 340, aircraft type CRJ-700, occasional turbulence and light chop

Transmit the conditions to ATC, e.g., "Chicago Approach, Archer 12345. Cloud bases were at 2,000 ft MSL and tops were at 4,000 ft MSL."

ADS-B if equipped, Flight Service, ATC (workload permitting), and ATIS/ASOS/AWOS

• Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS) - Local weather data combined with non-weather operational details
• Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS) - Continuous, automated weather reporting with type/intensity of precipitation and fog/haze
• Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) - Continuous, automated weather that reports basic meteorological data.

• Visible moisture plus below-freezing temperatures means there is an icing risk - do not fly this route.
• Could fly VFR under the clouds (or special VFR)
• If you desire to fly IFR, find a route/altitude that avoids the clouds, or wait for an improvement in the weather.

• Anti-ice systems prevent ice forming and go on before you enter icing - heated pitot tube, heated stall warning vane, heated or alcohol-sprayed windshield, a propeller alcohol slinger ring, carburetor heat, engine inlet heat.
• Deice systems remove ice after a measurable amount has built up - most commonly pneumatic boots on the wing and tail leading edges, and electrically heated propeller boots that cycle through the blades to shed it.
• Sometimes the label follows the operation, not the hardware: cycled electrothermal propeller boots shed accumulated ice (de-ice) while continuous heating prevents it (anti-ice), and carburetor heat both prevents carb ice and clears it once formed. Read the placard.
• Alternate air is not ice protection. It's an alternate induction path for a blocked inlet or filter, and on many injected engines it opens automatically.
• Almost every airplane has some of this equipment, and a piece or two does not make an airplane approved for icing. Note also that § 91.205(d) does not itself require pitot heat for IFR - that comes from the AFM and the conditions you're operating in.

Known ice / FIKI approval

• FIKI means the airplane was certified with a complete, tested ice protection package and the AFM authorizes flight into known icing. It is an airplane-level certification, not a collection of parts - plenty of airplanes carry boots or a heated windshield without it.
• In a non-FIKI airplane, icing is an emergency in the making and the only plan is to leave: change altitude, reverse course, or land.
• Even with FIKI, the approval is a tool for leaving icing safely, not a license to loiter. No airplane is approved for severe icing, and ice raises stall speed while killing climb performance - your margins shrink exactly when you need them.

• Pitot heat on, defroster on, notify ATC, and request an immediate turn, climb, descent, or vector to exit icing conditions.
• Monitor for signs of carb ice and apply carb heat as necessary.

• Land at the nearest airport.
• Stall speed may be much higher, so use an appropriate higher approach speed.
• Consider a no-flap landing if recommended by the AFM/POH or checklist.

Three ingredients

• Sufficient moisture
• An unstable lapse rate
• A lifting action (a front, terrain, surface heating, or convergence)

Three stages

Hazards

Severe turbulence, wind shear and microbursts, hail (which can be thrown miles outside the cloud), severe icing, lightning, heavy rain, tornadoes, and a complete loss of visibility.

What it means for us

Never fly under a cell, since that's where the shear and hail live. Avoid anything severe or with an intense echo by at least 20 NM. Circumnavigate areas of heavy coverage rather than picking through them. And remember that an embedded cell in IMC gives you no visual warning at all.

No. Datalink/NEXRAD can be delayed, and the gap could already have closed.

• NOTAMs
• Weather reports and forecasts
• Known ATC delays
• Runway lengths
• Alternatives available
• Fuel requirements
• Takeoff and landing distances

Yes. An IFR flight plan and ATC clearance are required for IFR in controlled airspace. If the flight is entirely in Class G, you do not legally need one, but you still should plan carefully.

Enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate (if one is required), then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Yes

Possibly. Required for:

• Class E at or above 10,000 ft MSL, excluding at or below 2,500 ft AGL
• Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 ft MSL
• Class E airspace over the Gulf of Mexico at and above 3,000 ft MSL within 12 NM of the U.S. coastline
• Mode C veil

Required by § 91.225 in:

• Class A, Class B, and Class C
• Within 30 NM of a Class B primary airport, surface to 10,000 ft MSL, the Mode C veil
• Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C, up to 10,000 ft MSL
• Class E at and above 10,000 ft MSL, excluding airspace at and below 2,500 ft AGL
• Class E over the Gulf of Mexico at and above 3,000 ft MSL within 12 NM of the coast

Class A requires 1090ES. Below 18,000 ft MSL, either 1090ES or 978 UAT satisfies the rule.

ADS-B Out is what the regulation requires. ADS-B In, which puts traffic and weather in the cockpit, is never required.

• Class B - Solid blue line around airspace
• Class C - In airport information, e.g., [C], plus a dashed blue line around it
• Class D - In airport information, e.g., [D]
• Class E/G - Not available on the enroute chart

No, your IFR clearance already allows it. VFR flights do need explicit clearance, though, before entering.

In Part 91, there are none, but it's good ADM to use the minimums for Parts 121 and 135: 1 SM for aircraft with 1-2 engines, and ½ SM for aircraft with 3+ engines.

You must cross the departure end of the runway (DER) at a minimum altitude of 35 ft AGL and continue climbing to 400 ft AGL before making a turn. You must climb at 200 ft/NM.

• Climb rate (fpm) = Gradient (ft/NM) x (Groundspeed (kt) / 60)
• 345 fpm = 230 x 90 / 60

• You must file an alternate.
• That alternate must have something other than a GPS approach.

• 1-2-3 rule: from 1 hr before to 1 hr after ETA, destination weather is forecast below a 2,000 ft ceiling or 3 SM visibility.
• Also, if the destination has no IAP, you must file an alternate.

Destination TAF if available; if not, appropriate forecasts/reports such as nearby TAFs, prog charts, METAR trends, and Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA)

• Must not have "/A\ NA" in the IAPs listed for that airport
• If nonstandard alternate minimums are published in the IAPs ("/A\"), forecast weather must be at least what is prescribed in the IFR Alternate Airport Minimums portion of the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP).
  • In ForeFlight, they can be found on the airport's Procedure -> Arrival -> Alternate Minimums.
• If no nonstandard alternate minimums are published in the IAPs, forecast weather must be 600 ft and 2 SM visibility for precision approaches, or 800 ft and 2 SM visibility for non-precision approaches.
• No IAP is required if forecast weather at your ETA allows for descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under VFR.

• WAAS-equipped GPS permits RNAV approaches in addition to all others.
• Although LPV provides precision approach-like capability, it is treated as non-precision for this simplified alternate-planning answer. Use 800 ft and 2 SM visibility.

• Notices to Airmen are time-sensitive notices issued by aviation authorities to alert pilots of essential information, hazards, or changes that could affect flight safety.
• Examples include runway or taxiway closures, NAVAIDs out of service, obstacles, temporary flight restrictions (TFRs), and parachute jumping.

The FAA NOTAM Search, as well as EFB apps such as ForeFlight

(! indicates the beginning of a new NOTAM) At O'Hare, this is the 1st NOTAM issued in the month of June, the O'Hare runways 04L/22R are closed from 2021-06-23 at 1700Z to 2021-06-23 at 2300Z.

• Distant (D) - For airports, enroute NAVAIDs, procedures, hazards, and services
• Flight Data Center (FDC) - TFRs, other special airspaces, and changes to IFR operations, including IAPs, SIDs, STARs, and airways
• Pointer - Literally points to a nearby NOTAM, e.g., issuing one for an airport that is nearby a NOTAM'd parachute jumping area
• Special Activity Airspace (SAA) - Issued for airspaces (e.g., MOAs) that are active outside their published schedule
• Field Conditions (FICON) - Reports field conditions such as surface contaminants, and braking action

CRAFT

• C - Clearance limit
• R - Route
• A - Altitude (initial altitude, plus what to expect and when)
• F - Frequency for departure
• T - Transponder code

Abbreviated clearances

• An abbreviated clearance, e.g., "cleared to KMSN as filed," still names the destination and includes any departure procedure, the altitude information, the departure frequency, and the squawk. Only the route is abbreviated.
• It's only issued when you actually have a flight plan on file, and it clears you via the route you filed. Any change ATC made will be read to you in full.
• A clearance isn't authority to deviate from a regulation, and accepting one doesn't transfer terrain avoidance to ATC below the minimum IFR altitude. If you can't comply or aren't sure what changed, say so.

Per the Chart Supplement, call 847-289-0926.

• Check the Chart Supplement - it may list phone numbers, Remote Communications Outlets (RCOs), or Ground Communications Outlets (GCOs).
• If VMC, you can depart VFR and contact departure for an IFR clearance in the air.

IFR releases can sometimes take a while, adding fuel burn and total flight time.

• Remote Communications Outlet (RCO) - A direct radio link to Flight Service and can be used by aircraft on the ground or in the air
• Ground Communications Outlet (GCO) - A radio-to-telephone link intended primarily for aircraft on the ground

• To talk to Center or Departure, key the microphone on the GCO frequency 4 times.
• To talk to Flight Service, key the microphone on the GCO frequency 6 times.

A clearance void time, which you must be off the ground by (not necessarily in contact with ATC by); otherwise, your IFR clearance is no longer valid.

You must call back for another IFR clearance.

• You can taxi, but you cannot take off until ATC releases you (i.e., clears the airspace of other IFR traffic).
• When ready to take off, call ATC back by RCO, GCO, or cell phone and obtain your release.
• The release time is the earliest you can depart.

• Hold for release - You have your clearance, but you may not depart IFR until ATC releases you.
• Release time - The earliest time you may depart.
• Clearance void time - The latest time you may depart. If you don't get off by then, you can't take off on that clearance, and you must contact ATC within 30 minutes of the void time so they can release the airspace held for you.
• EDCT (Expect Departure Clearance Time) - A wheels-up time assigned under a traffic management program. Plan to depart no earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after it.

Cruise

• "Cruise 6,000" assigns you a block of airspace from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000 ft. You may climb and descend anywhere within that block at your discretion.
• Once you report leaving an altitude, you can't return to it without an additional clearance.
• A cruise clearance also authorizes you to execute the approach and land at the destination without a separate approach clearance, which is why you'll hear it going into quiet non-towered airports.

Block altitude

• A block altitude, e.g., "maintain block altitude 9,000 through 11,000," is simply a band of altitudes you may maneuver within, usually for rides or icing.
• It doesn't extend down to the minimum IFR altitude, and it doesn't include approach authorization.

• Either type may be conventional or RNAV. RNAV versions have "RNAV" in the title and require RNAV 1 performance.
• Part 91 isn't required to fly an ODP, but you should strongly consider it at night, in marginal VMC or IMC, or at an unfamiliar airport with terrain.
• If you don't want a SID, put "NO SIDs" in the remarks section of your flight plan.

• If nothing penetrates the 40:1 obstacle identification surface, the runway passes what's called a diverse departure assessment and no ODP is published. That means a normal climb protects you in any direction off that runway.
• That protection assumes you:
  • Cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft above the departure end elevation
  • Climb to 400 ft above the departure end elevation before making the initial turn
  • Maintain at least 200 ft/NM until the minimum IFR altitude
• A Diverse Vector Area (DVA) is airspace the facility has evaluated so that ATC can vector you off the departure below the minimum vectoring altitude. A DVA may carry its own required climb gradient, and it's published in the takeoff minimums section of the TPP.
• None of this replaces looking at the terrain yourself. The assessment stops where the evaluation area ends, and a steeper than standard climb gradient may be published instead of a departure route.

• Check for an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) by looking for a /T\ icon on an approach plate, then brief and fly it if appropriate.
• Request a Vertical Climb Over Airport (VCOA) if you have good visibility and the ability to climb over the airport.

No. A visual approach requires VMC (3 SM visibility and 1,000 ft ceilings or greater) and for you to remain clear of clouds to the airport.

Back up your visual approach with an IAP, such as an RNAV approach, to provide vertical and lateral guidance. Some avionics, such as the Avidyne Entegra, even allow you to program a visual approach in your flight plan, including specifying your entry (e.g., left base for runway 25R).

Yes. Unless ATC includes an additional heading or altitude restriction with the visual approach clearance, you may turn and descend as necessary to proceed visually to the airport. A visual approach authorizes you to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. You remain on an IFR flight plan and must maintain sight of the airport (or the preceding aircraft, if instructed to follow one) and remain clear of clouds.

At a towered airport, inform the tower. Unless advised by tower, overfly the runway while climbing to the traffic pattern altitude and remaining clear of clouds, and join the traffic pattern on the cross-wind. The instructions are the same for non-towered airports. If you are unable to remain clear of clouds, contact ATC as soon as possible for further instructions.

What it is

Special VFR (SVFR) is an ATC clearance that allows a VFR aircraft to operate within controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the weather is below basic VFR minimums. For airplanes, SVFR generally requires at least 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds.

When you'd use it

You might use SVFR to enter, leave, or operate within a surface area when the weather is below normal VFR minimums, but conditions are still good enough to safely remain clear of clouds with the required visibility. For example, an airport might have a low cloud layer that makes the field technically IFR, while visibility below the layer is adequate for a short VFR departure or arrival.

How to request it

To request it, you can call tower and say "Tower, Archer 3096B, request Special VFR departure to the west".

Rules to follow

For airplanes, you need at least 1 SM visibility and must remain clear of clouds. At night, the pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped. SVFR is traffic permitting, applies only within the surface area, and is prohibited for fixed-wing aircraft at certain airports.

What it is

VFR-on-top is an ATC authorization that allows an aircraft operating on an IFR flight plan to fly in VFR conditions at an appropriate VFR altitude instead of an ATC-assigned altitude. The flight is still operating on an IFR flight plan; VFR-on-top does not cancel IFR.

When you'd use it

You might request VFR-on-top when you want the flexibility to choose your own altitude while remaining on an IFR flight plan, e.g., to fly above or between cloud layers, avoid turbulence, or obtain better weather conditions. You may also request a climb to VFR-on-top to climb through a cloud layer into VMC.

How to request it

To request it, you can call ATC and say "Chicago Approach, Archer 3096B, request VFR-on-top".

Rules to follow

While VFR-on-top, you must maintain VFR weather minimums and appropriate VFR cruising altitudes, remain above IFR minimum altitudes, continue complying with your IFR clearance and applicable IFR procedures, and see and avoid other traffic. It is not permitted in Class A airspace.

Green means it has an IAP, blue means it has an IAP and a DoD approach, and brown means it has no IAP.

Identifier UGN, part-time Class D (star), 728 ft airport elevation, pilot-controlled lighting (circled L), longest runway is 6,000 ft, ATIS 132.4

• It's part of the Minimum Operational Network (MON), which indicates it has a ground-based IAP (e.g., ILS, LOC, or VOR) that does not require DME or GPS in the case of a GPS outage (e.g., all fixes can be identified using cross-radials).
• Useful in the case of a GPS outage or an issue with your GPS

It is a Remote Center Air/Ground facility, located in Maple Park. This is the frequency to use if you need to re-establish ATC contact, but do not have a specific frequency to use.

• Mountainous areas - 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
• Non-mountainous areas - 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
• If a minimum altitude is prescribed for the segment you're flying (MEA, MOCA, an ATC-assigned altitude, etc.), that governs instead.
• You can go below these when necessary for takeoff or landing.

Designated mountainous areas are defined by coordinates in 14 CFR part 95, and are the shaded areas on the enroute chart.

• Minimum Vectoring Altitude - the lowest altitude a radar controller may vector you to within a given sector.
• It provides 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle in non-mountainous areas and 2,000 ft in designated mountainous areas, and at least 300 ft above the floor of controlled airspace. Sector boundaries are at least 3 NM from the obstacle that determines the MVA.
• MVA charts are built for the controller's radar display, not for you, which is why an assignment can look lower than the MEA or MOCA you see on the enroute chart.
• An MVA guarantees obstacle clearance. It doesn't guarantee navigation signal coverage or communications, so if you lose the vector or the radar service ends, you're back to your own minimum IFR altitude. Speak up if an assignment doesn't look right to you.

• In controlled airspace, you fly the altitude ATC assigns. The hemispheric rule is built into how they assign it, but it isn't your call.
• In uncontrolled (Class G) airspace under IFR you pick based on magnetic course. There is no altitude floor on the rule: unlike the VFR version it applies to any level cruising flight.
  • 0° to 179° - odd thousands (3,000, 5,000, 7,000)
  • 180° to 359° - even thousands (2,000, 4,000, 6,000)
• VFR-on-top is the exception. You're still on an IFR clearance, but you fly VFR cruising altitudes (odd or even thousands plus 500 ft).

• Off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) - Guarantees 1,000 ft clearance in non-mountainous areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas
• You are not guaranteed any reception.

When filing point-to-point and not on a published route

To avoid turbulence or icing

Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) - It guarantees obstacle clearance and navigational signal along the airway.

Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) - You must cross LAIRD at or above 2700 ft when going south on V7.

A change in the MEA occurs at that fix.

Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA) - The lowest altitude at which you can identify a fix using an off-course NAVAID (e.g., where a cross-radial is needed).

Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) - The max altitude that you may use this route (10,000 ft in this case).

GPS Minimum Enroute Altitude

• They are unusable parts of the route, due to not enough guaranteed signal.
• You cannot file or accept a clearance that includes them, although you could fly point-to-point using RNAV.

The segment distance between the two fixes

The total distance from the navaid (OBK) to that fix

It is not a fix, just a mileage breakdown, and may indicate a course change.

• The changeover point, which in this case says to switch from navigating V12 using BIB at 70 NM from BIB to using the SHB VOR at 61 NM from SHB.
• These appear on long airways.

Its VOR service volume is a high MON service volume, and its DME is a legacy high service volume.

A Tango airway - an RNAV airway made up of GPS fixes

• Circled waypoint - Flyover waypoint, i.e., one you must fly over before starting your turn.
• Uncircled waypoint - Fly-by waypoint, i.e., one where you can start the turn before overflying it (more common).

• A constellation of satellites in medium Earth orbit, with enough satellites visible for the receiver to calculate position
• Each satellite sends a signal containing its position and the highly accurate time the signal was sent.
• Your GPS receiver uses those signals to calculate distance from each satellite, producing a sphere of possible positions.
• Additional satellite signals narrow the position solution and help correct receiver clock error.

• Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring - Onboard monitoring of the integrity of your signal, and allows for performance-based navigation (PBN)
• Requires minimum of 5 satellites or 4 with a barometric altimeter unit
• Accuracy is roughly 10-15 m.

• Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) - Uses ground-based reference stations and satellite corrections to improve GPS accuracy and integrity
• Accuracy is typically less than 3 m.

Non-precision GPS approaches (LNAV only)

Precision-like GPS approaches (LPV, LNAV/VNAV) and non-precision GPS approaches (LP+V)

Localizer Performance with Vertical guidance (LPV) - Precision-like approach with lateral and vertical guidance that becomes more sensitive closer to the runway

• Requires WAAS
• Think of it as GPS guidance that behaves similarly to an ILS.

Localizer Performance with advisory Vertical guidance (LP+V) - Non-precision approach with localizer-performance lateral navigation and advisory only vertical guidance

• May have obstacles or step-down fixes along the approach path
• Think of it as GPS lateral guidance similar to a LOC approach, with advisory vertical guidance.
• It will not be listed as a separate line of minima on the IAP - it appears on the GPS unit itself.

Lateral Navigation/Vertical Navigation (LNAV/VNAV) - Precision-like approach with lateral and vertical guidance, but without increasing angular guidance like LPV

• Requires WAAS or barometric VNAV
• Frequently has temperature restrictions if using barometric VNAV
• WAAS-equipped aircraft will almost always default to LPV over LNAV/VNAV.

It may downgrade to a non-precision LNAV approach, and, if so, you'd need to change your minimums. Otherwise, execute the missed.

Required Navigational Performance (RNP) - A type of performance-based navigation (PBN) that allows aircraft to fly a specified route.

Your navigation must be accurate to within 0.3 NM.

• An RNP approach with special equipment requirements, prior authorization, and training requirements
• It will show "RNP AR APCH - GPS" in the equipment notes.
• Usually involves things like curved segments of an approach
• No, you cannot fly one unless you have prior authorization and training to do so.

A reference phase signal broadcasts in all directions, and a variable phase signal rotates 360°. Your VOR receiver compares the timing differences and determines a bearing.

Legacy:

• Terminal (T):
  • 1,000-12,000 ft - 25 NM
• Low (L):
  • 1,000-18,000 ft - 40 NM
• High (H):
  • 1,000-14,500 ft - 40 NM
  • 14,500-18,000 ft - 100 NM
  • 18,000-45,000 ft - 130 NM
  • 45,000-60,000 ft - 100 NM

Minimum Operational Network (MON):

• Low (VL):
  • 1,000-5,000 ft - 40 NM
  • 5,000-18,000 ft - 70 NM
• High (VH):
  • 1,000-5,000 ft - 40 NM
  • 5,000-14,500 ft - 70 NM
  • 14,500-18,000 ft - 100 NM
  • 18,000-45,000 ft - 130 NM
  • 45,000-60,000 ft - 100 NM

Yes, but you cannot plan your flight to count on it if using the VOR for navigation. Also, be very wary of loss of signal.

Yes

Yes, although the VOR must be operational and monitored during the final approach segment (AIM 1-2-3).

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) - A UHF signal typically paired with a VOR or localizer that provides slant distance (i.e., not lateral distance). They can be available on some VORs, TACANs, NDBs, and localizers, but not all.

Close to the station and high

GPS

DME/DME is a form of RNAV that uses two DME stations to ascertain your location. It is commonly combined with an inertial reference unit (IRU) to form DME/DME/IRU. It is an alternative to GPS for RNAV.

All times:

• Missed approach
• Airspeed changes of 10 kt or 5% of filed TAS (whichever is greater)
• Reaching a holding fix
• VFR-on-top altitude changes
• Leaving a holding fix
• Unforecasted weather conditions
• Safety of flight issues
• Vacating a previously assigned altitude
• Radio or navigation equipment failure
• 500 fpm climb/descent not possible

When not in radar contact:

• ETA error of 3 minutes or more
• Outer marker inbound
• Final approach fix inbound
• Compulsory reporting points

Compulsory are filled in black triangles, non-compulsory are not filled in.

No, only when not in radar contact.

Draw an extended line from your current position through the holding fix to determine the right holding entry:

• Direct - When the extended line essentially takes you directly into the hold. Cross the fix and turn to follow the holding pattern.
• Parallel - When the extended line takes you outside the holding pattern, and you are not in a position to directly enter the hold. Cross the fix, turn to parallel the holding course outbound on the non-holding side for one minute (for timed legs), then turn 210° towards the protected area to intercept the inbound course.
• Teardrop - When the extended line takes you inside the holding pattern, and you are not in a position to directly enter the hold. Cross the fix, turn outbound to a heading 30° offset into the pattern, fly it for one minute (for timed legs), then turn in the direction of the hold to intercept the inbound course.

Protected airspace is designed around pilots flying these three entries at or below the maximum holding speed. Another entry isn't illegal, but combining an unusual entry with excess airspeed can put you outside protected airspace.

• Start timing the outbound leg when abeam the fix. If you can't determine the abeam position, start timing when the turn outbound is complete.
• Target inbound leg time:
  • At or below 14,000 ft MSL - 1 minute
  • Above 14,000 ft MSL - 1.5 minutes
• Fly the first outbound leg for that same time, then adjust later outbound legs for wind so that the inbound leg comes out at the target time.
  • For example, if your inbound leg was only 50 seconds, then you must extend your outbound leg by another 10 seconds to bring your inbound leg to 1 minute.
• DME and GPS holds are flown to a distance instead of a time. Fly the outbound leg to the charted along-track distance from the fix.

The 5 Ts:

• Turn - Start the turn to the outbound heading, or the turn called for by your entry.
• Time - Start the clock (if using timed legs). Outbound timing begins over or abeam the fix, whichever is later, and inbound timing begins when you're established on the inbound course.
• Twist - Set the inbound course on the OBS or HSI so your CDI shows what you expect.
• Throttle - Set holding power and airspeed.
• Talk - Report entering the hold, and report leaving it.

• Surface to 6,000 ft MSL - 200 kt
• 6,001-14,000 ft MSL - 230 kt
• 14,001 ft MSL and above - 265 kt

• Begin slowing within 3 minutes of the holding fix so that you cross it at or below the maximum holding speed.
• The standard maximums are:
  • Up to 6,000 ft MSL - 200 kt
  • 6,001 to 14,000 ft MSL - 230 kt
  • 14,001 ft MSL and above - 265 kt
• A speed in parentheses inside the charted holding pattern, e.g., (175), replaces the standard maximum. A pattern restricted to 210 kt between 6,001 and 14,000 ft is shown with an icon instead.
• If you can't comply with a published speed restriction, tell ATC.

The holding fix, direction of holding from the fix (e.g., "West of ABC"), radial/course/bearing/airway on which to hold, direction of turns if non-standard, leg length if non-standard, and the EFC

The holding side is where the actual racetrack pattern is flown, and provides more of a protected area than the non-holding side (which still has some protection).

• Precision - Lateral and vertical guidance meeting precision approach standards, flown to a DA: ILS, PAR, GLS.
• APV (approach with vertical guidance) - Vertical guidance that doesn't meet precision standards, also flown to a DA: LPV, LNAV/VNAV, and LDA with glidepath.
• Non-precision - Lateral guidance only, flown to an MDA: LOC, LOC BC, LDA, SDF, VOR, NDB, LP, LNAV, and ASR.

Localizer type Directional Aid (LDA) - A localizer that, for obstacle clearance reasons, may be offset from the runway.

Yes, it would be listed as LDA/Glideslope.

• Simplified Directional Facility. It transmits on localizer frequencies (108.10 to 111.95 MHz) and you fly it much like a localizer, but with less precision.
• The course is typically 6° or 12° wide, instead of a localizer's 3° to 6° width tailored to the runway, so full scale deflection covers a lot more ground.
• The course may or may not be aligned with the runway. A localizer is always aligned with the runway, and an LDA specifically is not.
• There's no glideslope, so it's a non-precision approach flown to an MDA.
• Usable off-course indications are limited to 35° either side of the course centerline. Disregard anything outside of that.

Straight-in approach is one without a course reversal (e.g., procedure turn), and a straight-in landing is one in which you land on the designated runway for the IAP (i.e., not a circling approach).

No

Request delay vectors; accepting a hold may increase workload.

A procedure turn is the maneuver used to reverse direction and get established inbound on the intermediate or final approach course. It also gives you room to lose altitude before the final approach segment.

Rules to fly it by:

• Stay within the charted "remain within __ NM" distance, measured from the procedure turn fix.
• The charted procedure turn altitude is a minimum until you're established on the inbound course.
• Keep the speed at or below 200 KIAS from the time you first cross the course reversal IAF through completion of the maneuver. That's what the obstacle clearance area is sized for.
• On a barbed arrow, only the side of the outbound course is mandatory. The shape is up to you: 45°/180°, racetrack, teardrop, or 80°/260°, as long as you stay within the charted distance.
• If it's charted as a hold in lieu of a procedure turn, the shape is mandatory. Fly the depicted turn direction and don't exceed the charted leg length or timing.

A charted procedure turn or hold in lieu of a procedure turn is required when depicted, unless one of these applies:

• "NoPT" is charted on the initial segment you're using, including a straight-in TAA sector or a NoPT feeder route or arc
• ATC clears you for a straight-in approach
• You're being radar vectored to the final approach course
• You're flying a timed approach from a holding fix
• You're arriving on a DME arc that terminates on the final approach course

Two other things:

• You can still fly the course reversal when it isn't required, but you need an amended clearance from ATC first.
• If the clearance leaves you unsure whether ATC expects a course reversal or a straight-in, ask. § 91.123 doesn't leave room for guessing.

• Only once you're established on a published segment or route of the approach, whether that's a feeder route, an initial segment from an IAF, or the final approach course. Then you may descend to that segment's published minimum altitude.
• If you're being radar vectored, maintain your last assigned altitude until you're established on a published segment, unless ATC clears you lower, e.g., "descend and maintain 3,000 until established on the localizer."
• Published feeder routes from the enroute structure to the IAF are part of the approach clearance, so you fly them without asking for anything additional.
• If your position and the clearance don't obviously fit together, ask before you descend.

A contact approach is an approach you can request in lieu of flying a published instrument approach, while remaining on your IFR clearance.

To get one:

• You have to request it. ATC cannot offer it to you.
• Reported ground visibility at the destination must be at least 1 SM.
• You must be clear of clouds with at least 1 SM flight visibility, and be able to reasonably expect to continue to the destination in those conditions.
• The destination must have a published standard or special instrument approach procedure.

Once you accept it, you're responsible for obstruction clearance and for navigating to the airport. ATC still provides separation from other IFR and special VFR traffic.

Compared to a visual approach, there's no 1,000 ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility requirement, and you don't need the airport in sight to be cleared, but there are also no published minimums protecting you.

Consists of two components - localizer and glideslope. Both have two signals each - one at 90 Hz and another at 150 Hz. The aircraft interprets its location by measuring the amount of overlap between the two signals.

• 10 NM within 35° of centerline
• 18 NM within 10° of centerline

Yes, and you'd fly to the LOC MDA instead of the ILS DA.

Yes, prior to the final approach segment as long as you're monitoring the raw LOC data (AC-90-108), but cannot on the final approach segment.

A localizer approach from the opposite side of a traditional ILS approach

Not unless they're part of a published IAP.

No, although you may see a false glideslope.

With a conventional CDI, back-course sensing can be reverse. If you are using reverse sensing, corrections feel backward compared with a normal front-course localizer.

Set the front course in your HSI, and you will get normal sensing and reduce the cognitive load.

• As a Part 91 GA pilot, you're typically flying CAT I.
• CAT II and CAT III require specific aircraft equipment (such as autopilot or autoland, dual systems, or a HUD), an FAA authorization, and specific pilot training and checking.
• The ground facility has to be certified to the category as well, and the lower minimums depend on the associated approach and runway lighting being in service.

• The glideslope antenna radiates additional lobes above the true glidepath. The first one that looks usable shows up at roughly twice the true angle, around 6° on a 3° glideslope, and sensing can be reversed on some of them.
• The defense is procedural: intercept the glideslope from below at the published glideslope intercept altitude, and never chase the needle down from above.
• Cross-check the charted crossing altitude at the FAF or marker. An intercept that begins unusually high, or a descent rate roughly double what you expected, is the giveaway.

Under Part 91, yes, although it's probably not a great idea.

• No. You may not continue below DA/MDA unless the § 91.175 requirements are met: required flight visibility, the required runway environment distinctly visible and identifiable, and the aircraft continuously in a position to descend and land using normal maneuvers.
• A momentary dip below DA while arresting the descent and initiating the missed can happen, but that is not permission to continue the approach below DA without the required visual references.

• The visibility minimums are flight visibility, meaning it's up to the pilot to make that determination.
• If you believe visibility is at least 1/2 SM, you may land.

• Red terminating bar or red side row bars on ALSF-1 and ALSF-2 systems
• Runway threshold
• Threshold lights
• Runway end identifier lights (REILs)
• PAPI or VASI
• Runway lights
• Touchdown zone markings or lights

• We can descend to 100 ft above TDZE when certain lighting is in sight.
• Helpful to know the runway touchdown elevation for the 100 ft rule and for situational awareness

Approach lighting system

The approach lighting system has sequenced flashing lights, commonly referred to as a "rabbit".

No, you must execute the missed approach if you cannot make a stable descent while maintaining the required visual references.

• Visual Descent Point - a defined point on the final approach course of a straight-in non-precision approach from which you can make a normal descent from the MDA to the touchdown point, provided you have the required visual references.
• It's charted as a "V" on the profile view.
• Descend below the MDA only when you have the required flight visibility and visual references per § 91.175(c) and are in a position to make a normal descent to the runway; the VDP is a planning aid, not a hard gate.
• If you can't identify it, for example no DME or GPS distance to the fix, fly the approach as though no VDP were published.
• If one isn't published, you can estimate it:
  • Distance: HAT ÷ 300 = NM from the threshold
  • Time: HAT ÷ 10 = seconds to subtract from the published FAF to MAP time

It depends on both the V_S0 of the airplane and the MDA, but for most general aviation airplanes and approaches, it's 1.3 NM:

• Contact ATC as soon as possible to obtain an amended clearance.
• If unable, attempt to re-intercept a published segment of the missed approach and comply with the route and altitude instructions.
• If unable and, in your judgment, you can no longer fly the published missed approach, consider maintaining visual conditions and reattempt a landing.
• If unable, commence a circle-climb over the airport until you are able to establish contact with ATC.

• You reach the DA or MAP without the flight visibility and visual references required by § 91.175(c) to continue.
• You lose the required visual references after descending below DA or MDA, other than during a normal descent to land once you're in a position to make a normal landing.
• You're circling and lose sight of the airport. Turn toward the runway and climb into the published missed approach.
• ATC instructs you to.
• Anything makes a safe approach unlikely: you're unstable or high, you have a navigation or instrument failure, or there's a traffic or wake conflict.

Obstacle protection assumes you start the missed approach at the DA or MAP, and no lower than the MDA, and that you climb at least 200 ft/NM unless the plate specifies a higher gradient.

• Verify the chart is correct and up-to-date.
• Approach course is 068°, the runway length is plenty, and the runway is 150 ft wide. Touchdown zone elevation is 742 ft.
• GPS is required for this approach.
• We have WAAS, so the note about uncompensated Baro-VNAV does not apply.
• Expect an ASLF-2 with sequenced flashing lights.
• On the missed, climb to 2,500 ft and proceed direct to TONGE and hold, expecting either a parallel or teardrop entry.
• Once cleared for the approach, we can descend to 2,500 ft upon reaching DAYVL.
• We are not doing the procedure turn at RUDGE.
• At RUDGE, turn right to join the 068° course to CUDUP (our FAF) and maintain 2,500 ft until CUDUP.
• Assuming we have LPV, which we'll check during the approach, we can descend from CUDUP to 942 ft as long as we have RVR 2,400 ft or greater, which gets us to 200 ft AGL. The stepdown fix at ZEVBU will not apply to us.
• The PAPI on the right-hand side of the runway is not coincident with the RNAV glidepath.
• The final approach course is directly aligned with the runway, which has touchdown zone and centerline lighting.

Required Navigation Performance Approach (RNP) - Several lines of minima (e.g., LPV, LNAV/VNAV, LNAV) to accommodate varying levels of aircraft equipment

• Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA) - Provides at least 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance within the specified sector/radius, usually 25 NM from the named fix or facility. It is primarily for emergency use to ensure terrain avoidance.
• It doesn't guarantee navigational signal, though.

When using LNAV or circling - LPV and LNAV/VNAV does not need to respect the stepdown fix.

• Decision altitude is 942 ft, runway visual range (RVR) minimum is 2,400 ft.
• 200 ft height above touchdown (HAT)
• Parenthesized values (200-½) are used by military pilots.

• Used to categorize aircraft by 1.3 x V_S0 (IAS) to determine required maneuvering airspace and approach minimums
  • A: < 91 kt
  • B: 91 to < 121 kt
  • C: 121 to < 141 kt
  • D: 141 to < 166 kt

• Enter a 4 NM hold, and start your descent to 2,500 ft.
• Upon reaching 2,500 ft and you're on the inbound leg, you may continue to CUDUP.

• Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) - Meant to transition aircraft from enroute to terminal phase of flight
• Are considered a published part of the approach

Can descend to 3,100 ft

• Cleared for a straight-in approach
• Receiving radar vectors
• 022° course clockwise to 202° course to JIGTA
• Remember - when in doubt, ask ATC for clarification.

• Load KBUU RNAV 11, JIGTA IAF.
• Delete the course reversal at JIGTA if one exists (we were cleared straight-in).

• Localizer precision, but vertical guidance is advisory only.
• Lateral navigation will get more sensitive as you get closer to the airport like an ILS localizer.

Visual Descent Point (VDP) - Helpful to know where a normal 3° glidepath would start down to the runway. Going much beyond this point will likely not allow for a stable approach to the runway - a requirement for landing out of an approach.

Other-than-hard-surface runway, 2,410 ft x 130 ft

• Three ovals across 36
  • Displaced threshold - Useful for knowing where landable runway begins
• (A) next to runway 36
  • High-intensity Approach Lighting System (ALSF-2) - Helpful to know what type of lighting we'll first see
• Arrows pointing in opposite directions on runway 36
  • Bi-directional arrestor cables - Informational for civilians
• Star symbol on right side of the field
  • Airport beacon - Useful to help find the airport in low visibility
• (P) next to runway 36
  • PAPI - Useful to know where the indicator is that transitions us from instrument to visual flight
• Black (L) next to "HIRL all Rwys"
  • Pilot-controlled lighting for high-intensity runway lighting
• White dots along runway 36
  • Runway centerline lights - Useful to laterally orient ourselves when transitioning to visual flight

Only when assigned by ATC

To handle additional traffic that the airport has

• There are two identical types of IAP guidance for the same runway.
• Note that there is also a KPRC RNAV (GPS) Z 03R IAP, which offers an RNP AR APCH.

Circling approach

The 6.59° descent angle exceeds the 400 ft/NM straight-in descent-gradient limit.

Indicates a cold temperature airport (CTA), which indicates an airport where extreme cold can create a wide enough discrepancy between true and indicated altitude that you are not guaranteed obstacle clearance.

• NAV1 111.15 for I-ASE, 108.5 for I-PKN to minimize button pushing to switch primary navigation source, and 115.2 for EKR once inbound to GLENO
• NAV2 113.0 for R-244 from DBL

The vertical navigation path of your IAP does not match the PAPI/VASI path, and should not alarm you when your instruments indicate on-glideslope but the PAPI/VASI does not.

• Safely and efficiently transitions aircraft from the runway to enroute while reducing radio communications
• Organizes traffic flow
• Ensures obstacle clearance

• Verify the chart is correct and up-to-date.
• RNAV 1 (DME/DME/IRU or GPS) and radar are required.
• (Brief the frequencies).
• Top altitude is 3,000 ft.
• Takeoff minimums for runway 7 are 300-⅛ or standard with minimum climb of 230 ft/NM to 1,000 ft, or standard minimums and a standard climb gradient if taking off 1,700 ft prior the departure end of the runway.
• From runway 7, climb on heading 068° or as assigned and expect vectors to BODEE.
• Cross BODEE at 3,000 ft unless given a higher altitude and expect our filed altitude 10 minutes after departure.
• From BODEE, fly 207° to BIXBY.
• From BIXBY, fly the 235° course to QUIZZ.

The maximum altitude authorized by the SID clearance until ATC assigns otherwise

• It's the MEA, used for obstacle clearance and lost comms planning on that segment.
• Otherwise, abide by crossing restrictions up to your top altitude.

You must still fly the lateral path and comply with any speed restrictions, but published altitude restrictions are canceled and you climb to 4,000 ft.

You must fly the lateral and vertical path, and comply with any speed restrictions.